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Old 22 December 2008, 12:54   #66
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AndreasM's Avatar
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: germany
Posts: 665
Originally Posted by Retro-Nerd View Post
Ok, you don't want to learn something here. The German law knows the Urheberrecht and the rights of use, i.e. distribution rights. So, this denies automatically the existence of any PD here, which would mean the copyright ended or it was never existent.
i NEVER say that the copyright ended or never existent!!!

i say that the user can with §31 say that all users can make with his software what they like. that are to 90% the same as PD in the USA.

When a german developer write in his readme that his software are public domain, he use autom. the §31. he dont loose the "Urheberrecht" but in practise is this the same.
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